Q&A

What about quantum randomness? Isn't that absolute randomness?

No. Quantum randomness implies there is a cause outside creation for all events.

Moreover string theory means the very fabric of the universe is the music of God.

Does God sin?

God cannot sin. To sin is to do something displeasing to God (contrary to His nature), and God cannot do that.

But God does cause His creatures to sin. There are many examples in scripture of God making men to err (Isaiah 63:17), sending a lying spirit into people's mouths (1 Kings 22:23), hardening their hearts (Exodus 4:21), sending them a strong delusion that they should believe a lie (2 Thessalonians 2:11), turning their hearts to hate His people (Psalm 105:25), adding iniquity to existing iniquity (Psalm 67:27), etc....

Why would God cause people to sin?

To show His wrath (Romans 9:22).

Why would God want to show His wrath?

The wrath of God reveals His righteous nature in a number of ways.

By contrast God's wrath reveals the depth of His mercy upon those He has mercy.

God's wrath also shows His justice to those who do evil.

How can God's anger be just if He made them sin?

The apostle Paul thought you'd ask that: "Thou wilt say then unto me, Why doth he yet find fault? For who hath resisted his will?" (Romans 9:20)

Paul's answer is that God has the right to make men any way He chooses, just as a potter has the right to make clay any way he chooses. Clay does not have a right to tell its potter what to do, and neither do we have the right to tell God what to do (Romans 9:21).

Doesn't the Bible say God would never command iniquity (Jeremiah 19:5)?

Yes. This speaks of God's moral command. Moral commands show us the holiness of God, but scripture also speaks of God ordaining events. This is sometimes called God's providence, or what God has provided.

For example, God said to the Israelites, "Come to Bethel and transgress; at Gilgal multiply transgression; and bring your sacrifices every morning, and your tithes after three years: And offer a sacrifice of thanksgiving with leaven, and proclaim and publish the voluntary offerings: for this liketh you, O ye children of Israel, saith the Lord God" (Amos 4:4-5).

To understand how verses like this are compatible with God's holiness it may help to consider the kinds of commands God gives (see next question).

What kinds of commands does God give?

God commands moral obedience as well as events in time.

The latter includes commanding that disobedience will come to pass (e.g. Amos 4:4). 

According to the former the wicked are called God's enemies (Psalm 37:20) and foes (Acts 2:35) but according to the latter they are God's hand (Psalm 17:14) and servants (Jeremiah 25:9).

If it helps try comparing Habakkuk 1:13 with Proverbs 15:3 to see the holiness and deity of God from different perspectives.

Isn't there a distinction between moral evil and natural evil in the Bible?

There is a distinction between these concepts, but when the Bible uses the word "evil" it uses it for evil regardless of its kind.

For example, death by accident and by murder is evil in scripture because either way it is disastrous; one is a natural disaster, the other a moral disaster.

When scripture says that God creates evil (Isaiah 45:7) it means all kinds of evil, just as when it says He creates light it means all kinds of light.

For example God turned the hearts of the Egyptians to hate his people (Psalm 105:25) and then brought upon them seven plagues. Both of these "evils" were ordained by God.

Doesn't God harden men's hearts in response to sin? 

Yes. Since the fall of Adam God has always hardened men's hearts in response to the sin. But sin is in man's heart by nature. Therefore Paul said that men are "by nature children of wrath" (Ephesians 2:3) and David said he was conceived in sin (Psalm 51:5).

Does the Bible ever say God commanded Adam's sin to happen?

No, not directly. But it doesn't need to because it says, "of Him...are all things" (Romans 11:36).

Besides it does say that the serpent was more subtle than any of the creatures that the LORD made (Genesis 3:1) and that the LORD has made all for Himself, yea, even the wicked for the day of evil (the day when disaster shall come upon them—Proverbs 16:4).

To see the deep meaning of these verses requires eyes of faith; complete trust that God is right in everything He does.

What does the Bible say about God's permission?

The Bible rarely uses the word "permit" or "allow" in relation to God.

When it does it always pertains to what God ordains, such as 1 Corinthians 16:7 and Hebrews 6:3, or morally allows such as Mark 5:15.

To say God merely permits sin without also ordaining it guts the scripture of its meaning. Consider God turning the Egyptians' hearts to hate His people (Psalm 105:25). To say God turned their hearts merely by permission makes void the law and the prophets. 

Doesn't the Bible say it's the devil who takes away the word of God?

Yes, but it also says the devil is a waster, created to destroy (Isaiah 54:16).

It says God blinds the eyes of men, hardens their hearts (John 12:40) and sends a lying spirit into their mouths (1 Kings 22:23), and a famine of hearing His word (Amos 8:11).

Therefore it is God who takes away even that which the reprobate (rejected ones) have (Matthew 25:29).

As for blame, Jesus said, "offences will come: but woe unto him through whom they come!" (Luke 17:1)

Does the doctrine of predestination compromise or contradict the doctrine of God's holiness?

No. God's purposes and intentions are always good, whereas the thoughts of the wicked are always evil, continually (Genesis 6:5, see Genesis 50:20 for the vital distinction).